Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 17.06.2025 04:27
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What are your funniest "lost in translation" moments if you grew up speaking more than one language?
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why am I so jealous towards couples? Why am I tired of being single and feel my life is over?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.